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Old 06-03-2008, 06:26 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Default Would Brown have ignored a referendum NO vote

I am convinced that Brown would have ignored a NO vote if he had been forced to have a referendum. He would have found a way out, such is his steaming desire for power under a fascist rule.
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Old 06-03-2008, 06:46 PM   #2 (permalink)
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No he couldn't thats why he didn't have one.
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Old 06-03-2008, 07:00 PM   #3 (permalink)
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Brown is a liar and a cheat .We were in the Labour manifesto promised a referendum . He has now gone back on that promise.
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Old 06-03-2008, 08:35 PM   #4 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chip View Post
I am convinced that Brown would have ignored a NO vote if he had been forced to have a referendum. He would have found a way out, such is his steaming desire for power under a fascist rule.
Totally agree with you on this. They would have found a way of avoiding the issue with something along the lines of "not enough time" or similar. Or they would have doctored the Referendum in such a way that whatever answer was given would be the one they want. I wouldn't even put it past this lot to 'fix' any referendum that was held.

Come to that, they'll probably even try to 'fix' the GLA and London Mayoral elections, which would explain why Red Ken was so confident until he 'lost' his pal Jasper.
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Old 06-03-2008, 11:26 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Come to that, they'll probably even try to 'fix' the GLA and London Mayoral elections, which would explain why Red Ken was so confident until he 'lost' his pal Jasper. Well Geoffrey Archer thought he had the mayor title until they brought his misdemeanours out into the open which they had probably known all about for years.

Who is his pal Jasper and how did he lose him? I seem to ask more questions than state things but just interested in thing I don't know!
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Old 07-03-2008, 12:35 AM   #6 (permalink)
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Default Labour's devolution, Government, referendum, votes, Scottish, invalidated

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I am convinced that Brown would have ignored a NO vote if he had been forced to have a referendum. He would have found a way out....
I write this as an opponent of Labour's devolution: In the late 1970s the Labour Government held a referendum in Scotland on setting up a Scottish Parliament (I believe Labour were forced into doing this because they needed the votes of Scottish so-called 'Nationalists'). There was a narrow 'Yes' for the Scottish Parliament but the referendum result was invalidated because not enough voters had participated in it (i.e. a minimum turnout of about 65% of electors voting had been built in to the Commons legislation facilitating the referendum).

Would Labour again try to make a referendum vote on the EU/EU Treaty conditional on a high turnout of voters?
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