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Old 11-04-2008, 02:43 PM   #11 (permalink)
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It's pure Marxism.

I think you need to learn what Marxism is all about.
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Old 12-04-2008, 03:21 AM   #12 (permalink)
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Oh come on, it wasn’t socialism that laid the tracks to Auschwitz, it was ultra right wing nationalist fascism driven by a bunch of evil men playing on a nations hurt.
Sorry you are wrong fascism was a marxist revision movement from the left wing. Can't be bothered to leave a link but check out Mussolini's history in the communist party.

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As for equating New Labour with Socialism, that’s a thing that’s almost laughable were it not so ridiculous.
That comment is laughable.

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What New Labour, or more properly Blair-ism did, was to use Socialists as foot soldiers and also play the “social” card to conduct some half brained lunatic revolution to impose Blair’s stupid ideology on the country and destroy Britain as a nation in the process.
Tony Blairs labour was not socialist but since he's left labour the true face of the new school champaign socialists have clearly raised their ugly heads.

As for Blair he now stands for every thing he claimed not to when he was elected.

It’s interesting to watch how New Labour are imploding since Blair took the money and ran.[/quote]

Blair kept the labour party under control. Blair was a front man as far as I can see. He was well promoted by the media and sucked the whole country in wile
making him self out to be more voter friendly he was quite clearly selling the country off behind closed doors.

And you don't think international bankers our behind the EU then why has he got a top job at JP morgan where he'll sit behind a desk flicking a pen waiting for the top job as the EU president.

Blair was the biggest traitor this country has ever known.
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Old 12-04-2008, 08:18 PM   #13 (permalink)
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Default Europhile Heath

Roland - regarding your comment (at the end of the last posting to this thread) about the europhile fool Blair. May I ask - how do you regard arch-europhile Heath (the man who told the British people a pack of lies about the EEC only being a trading area; the man who forced Conservative MPs to vote for EEC/EU entry without even a referendum and the man who is ultimately responsible for the UK being stuck in the EU straitjacket now)?

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Old 18-05-2008, 05:11 PM   #14 (permalink)
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Nazism USED Nationalism and Socialism in order to attract people to its corner. They identified and exploited a market.

As for eugenics, that was all about trying to breed back to a mystical race called the Aryans. The whole thing is a load of horse apples.

Unfortunately just as there are people today who believe that some races of people are fundamentally inferior to others for reasons ranging from the being less evolved as opposed to differently evolved, a massively different thing, so the Nazis played the Ubermenschen vs. Untermenschen card based on ludicrous concept of separation of races from the totally make believe Aryan race.

To associate Nazism with both Nationalism and Socialism is correct.

Conversely to associate either Nationalism or Socialism with Nazism is incorrect.

In the first case Nazism made use of political ideologies, in the second case neither political ideology makes any use of Nazism.

How strange that native Europeans, Aryans are the only people on this earth to be denied an identity.
Are you in denial that there is a family of languages which are classed as Indo-European? This family of languages all trace their descent from an original reconstructed language termed PIE[Proto-Indo-European].
A Proto-Indo-European people presupposes an original common homeland[Urheimat] and thus a common racial type.
You might find this truth unpalatable but that does not make it any less true.
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Old 19-05-2008, 10:10 AM   #15 (permalink)
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How strange that native Europeans, Aryans are the only people on this earth to be denied an identity.
Do you actually know what Aryans were supposed to be in Nazi ideology? Real wacko off the wall stuff.

Sort of “eugenics on acid and with an attitude” idiocy.

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Are you in denial that there is a family of languages which are classed as Indo-European? This family of languages all trace their descent from an original reconstructed language termed PIE[Proto-Indo-European].
Of course not, no more than I would deny any proto-language that evolved first into dialects and then into discrete languages in their own right.

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A Proto-Indo-European people presupposes an original common homeland [Urheimat] and thus a common racial type.
Err, which Urheimat did you have in mind? (you will either know or be ignorant of what is behind that question!)

I suspect that what you may mean is in the German “Heimat” form for which there is no real English translation, (a bit like Chutzpah in Yiddish!)

In any case, no it does not presuppose a common homeland. That is a step too far. It supposes common tribal populations at one stage, nothing more.

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You might find this truth unpalatable but that does not make it any less true
Why on earth should I find it unpalatable that we all can trace common tribal ancestry?

Or that there are a number of intermediary languages on the path to those that we use today?

I am a polyglot. Translation, REAL translation, is how I earn my living, or at least supplement my pension.

Consequentially I am only too well aware of similarity of language due to common roots as well as the differences in language constructs, grammars, and semantics across a number of the European languages.

Try learning, I mean REALLY learning German grammar, and you would know exactly what I mean!

Take “der die das”, they can really cause problems, there’s times some things change sex in a single bloomin’ sentence! (Especially where "Tom" cats are involved!)
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Old 19-05-2008, 06:44 PM   #16 (permalink)
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"An untameable beast: How the Tories saw the socialist menace in 1999"

Surely a misprint?!
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Old 19-05-2008, 06:55 PM   #17 (permalink)
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[quote=The Bear;502472]
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Do you actually know what Aryans were supposed to be in Nazi ideology? Real wacko off the wall stuff.

Sort of “eugenics on acid and with an attitude” idiocy.
Try being sensible and debate the facts please!

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Of course not, no more than I would deny any proto-language that evolved first into dialects and then into discrete languages in their own right.
And as I have said the speakers of that common Proto-Indo-European language would have shared a common identity based upon their language, geographical location and race.
Just as the breakaway dialects and languages are the possession of individual tribes, ethnicities and nations who also share a common homeland and racial phenotype.

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Err, which Urheimat did you have in mind? (you will either know or be ignorant of what is behind that question!)
The question of the actual location of the original Aryan homeland is an unsettled question as you well know but we can safely assume that as the majority of speakers of Indo-European languages[ie the majority of individual languages and dialects] dwell within the European living space and that the reconstructed PIE consists of flora and fauna solely to be found within Europe then that that is where we originated from, certainly not Asia as some Hindu nationalists still foolishly maintain.
The distribution of the RIa and R1b haplogroups seems to mirror the dispersal of centum and satem languages. This corelation is worthy of further research.

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I suspect that what you may mean is in the German “Heimat” form for which there is no real English translation, (a bit like Chutzpah in Yiddish!)
Urheimat is the term traditionally used by German Indo-European scholars.


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In any case, no it does not presuppose a common homeland. That is a step too far. It supposes common tribal populations at one stage, nothing more.
Why is it a step too far? We know from the dispersal of the individual Indo-European languages and their intermediate dialects that they branched outwards from a common centre. To suggest otherwise is patently absurd and is more of an indicator of your political[correct] views than a reflection of the actual facts and logical deductions.

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Why on earth should I find it unpalatable that we all can trace common tribal ancestry?
I did not say "all" except in the context of native Europeans.

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Or that there are a number of intermediary languages on the path to those that we use today?
I never denied it.

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I am a polyglot. Translation, REAL translation, is how I earn my living, or at least supplement my pension.
And translating arcane German esoteric literature is how I spend my spare time.

Quote:
Consequentially I am only too well aware of similarity of language due to common roots as well as the differences in language constructs, grammars, and semantics across a number of the European languages.
Good for you! So it is time you started acknowledging the deductions of generations of Indo-European scholars!

Quote:
Try learning, I mean REALLY learning German grammar, and you would know exactly what I mean!
I have studied it.

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Take “der die das”, they can really cause problems, there’s times some things change sex in a single bloomin’ sentence! (Especially where "Tom" cats are involved!)
To understand a language you must think as a native of that language. Fortunately I am of German descent.
However we are digressing-let`s keep to the point please. Brevity can be a virtue!
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